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1 Peter

1 Peter: Translating Chapter 1

This is part of my series on 1 Peter.  As noted in my introductory post, I’m interested in the epistle’s language.  After the introductory materials in Chapter 1:1-2, the writer offers an encouragement to remain steadfast that is often the subject of sermons.  (As they say, “that’ll preach!”)  Like most such exhortations in the New Testament, the encouragement is based in the eschatological hope that God will vindicate the community of God’s people.   Verse 9 tells the letter’s hearers that they should remain steadfast, “for you are receiving the end result of your faith, the salvation of your souls” (NIV).   The multiple “you’s” here — you are receiving, your faith, the salvation of your souls — appear in the NIV, NASB, and NRSV.

Here is how David Bentley Hart translates verse 9:  “Obtaining the end of your faithfulness:  salvation of souls.”  Notice the shift in emphasis:  the Church’s “faithfulness” — not “your faith” — results in the “salvation of souls” — not “your souls.”

At first blush, I thought this might connect with a missional reading of this text.  In Hart’s more “literal” translation, the emphasis seems to shift from the souls of the particular person or community the writer is addressing to “souls” generally, that is, to the broader human community.  Perhaps there is a notion here that the Church’s prayers and practices spill over to benefit others who are not yet within the Church.  But this instinct shows how tricky it can be to base conclusions on differing translations.  It also shows that Hart’s effort to produce a “literal” translation can’t really result in a “literal” reading.  A “translation,” after all, can’t ever be “literal.”  (I’m not attacking Hart’s work here — I think it’s amazing — but just observing, as I’m sure Hart would agree, that translation always involves interpretation.)

The Greek text here is:

κομιζόμενοι here has the sense of coming into possession of something, often as a reward. [1] The noun τέλος (telos) refers to an end, conclusion, or goal.

πίστεως is the term translated “faith” in the NIV and NRSV and “faithfulness” by Hart.  I think Hart’s translation invokes the debate over the translation of πίστεως Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ in the Pauline corpus (cf. Rom. 3:22, Gal. 2:16, Gal. 3:22, Phil. 3:9).[2]  My inclination is that “faithfulness” is the better translation, and Achtemeier’s commentary agrees.  Perhaps this is a place where the author of 1 Peter is using a Pauline concept, or, more directly, the notion of “faithfulness” seems closer to the early Jewish-Christian thought world generally.

The term “your” — ὑμῶν — appears only once in this clause.  Hart reads ὑμῶν to modify πίστεως but not σωτηρίαν ψυχῶν.  The word ψυχῶν (from psuché, “soul”) is in the genitive plural, while σωτηρίαν is singular, so that clause literally is “the salvation of souls.”

Hart’s translation therefore seems grammatically correct or at least more “literal” than the other English translations.  The problem is that it is equally grammatically correct in Greek to read ὑμῶν as relating both to πίστεως and to σωτηρίαν ψυχῶν.  In Greek, the tenses of words determine their relation to each other, not word order.  This can be counterintuitive for English speakers, because word order is very important in English.  Of course, Hart knows this, and I’m not suggesting there’s anything untoward in Hart’s translation.  But, as is so often the case, as a translator Hart is not just rendering the text “literally,” but is necessarily making choices between different plausible possibilities.  It’s wise, then, to read any translation with a modestly critical eye.[3]

In his commentary, Achtemeier translates verse 9 “because you are receiving the culmination of your faith that is your salvation.”  Hart’s translation gives some credence to how I’m reading the Greek, but the NSRV, NIV, and Achtemeier all read a “your” in connection with “salvation” or “souls.”  At the same time, Achtemeier’s translation seems to be relatively dynamic:  he does not even render the word ψυχῶν (“souls”) into English because, he suggests in a footnote, the term ψυχῶν refers to the whole person, not to a disembodied “soul.”

How would you choose between these possible alternatives?  I don’t think there’s any great doctrinal weight behind the question in this case, and as a theologian you should never build an entire case on one obscure verse in any event.  But the first step would be to look at the verse or pericope in question in the context of the particular text under study.  The authors of Biblical texts were not writing with “verses” in mind — verse divisions came much later.  1 Peter is a letter, a practical, pastoral exhortation to a particular community or group of communities.  How would one translation or another fit into the overall flow of the letter?  What concerns is the writer addressing, are there any concepts that seem to recur, is there similar language used in other places?  If this particular text is part of a corpus from one writer, how does the language relate to similar concepts and language in other texts by that writer?  These are some basic considerations that show there is always an “art” to translation.

So what do I think about this particular text?  I think the “standard” English translations probably are the better reading over Hart’s, but to some extent I’m going to punt.  The letter is addressed to a particular suffering community or group of communities, so undoubtedly the author wants to encourage these readers about their salvation from this struggle.  Much in 1 Peter is oppositional — a “Christ against culture” stance in relation to the power of Rome — and that is what makes its political theology interesting, as Harink’s commentary notes.  And yet, there is a “cosmic” eschatological framing in the letter.  The author tells the community that they “are being protected by the power of God through faith for a salvation ready to be revealed in the last time.” (1 Pet. 1:5 NRS).  This  σωτηρίαν (1 Pet. 1:5 GNT) will be ἀποκαλυφθῆναι ἐν καιρῷ ἐσχάτῳ.  The apocalyptic — revealing — awaits the kairoi eschatoi — the eschatological time.  The eschatological time belongs to God and is known only to God.  What the Church knows is that it is protected as it is called to bear witness through patient service, and suffering, to what God has yet to reveal.

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[1]

BDAG Note 3 on  κομίζω  reads as follows:

“to come into possession of someth. or experience someth., carry off, get (for oneself), receive freq. as recompense, mid. (Diod. S. 17, 69, 1; 20, 28, 3; Appian, Bell. Civ. 5, 60, §252 γράμματα) τὰ ὀψώνια pay, wages IPol 6:2. μισθόν (Polystrat. p. 22; Lucian, Phal. 2, 5; SIG 193, 9; 11; 1077, 4; 2 Macc 8:33; Ath., R. 18 p. 70, 30 κομίσασθαι τὰ ἐπίχειρα) 2 Cl 11:5; cp. B 4:12, where μισθόν is to be supplied (as En 100:7). μισθὸν ἀδικίας reward for wrongdoing 2 Pt 2:13 v.l. (ἀδικέω 2 end). Of special divine favor in recognition of piety (Diod. S. 3, 2, 4) τῆς δόξης στέφανον 1 Pt 5:4 (cp. Eur., Hipp. 432 codd. κ. δόξαν; 1 Macc 13:37). κ. τὰ διὰ τοῦ σώματος πρὸς ἃ ἔπραξεν receive a recompense for what (each one) has done during life in the body 2 Cor 5:10 (cp. the judgment scenes Pla., Phd. 113 and 114; s. also Diod. S. 8, 15); cp. Col 3:25. τοῦτο κομίσεται παρὰ κυρίου Eph 6:8 (PSI 438, 11 [III BC] κεκόμισμαι παρὰ Φανίου ἐπιστολήν). τὴν ἐπαγγελίαν the promise (i.e. what is promised) Hb 10:36; 11:13 v.l., 39. τὸ τέλος τῆς πίστεως σωτηρίαν ψυχῶν obtain as an outcome of faith the salvation of souls 1 Pt 1:9 (contrast 4:17).—DELG s.v. κομέω. M-M.”

[2]

For a summary of the debate, see Chris Kugler, ΠΙΣΤΙΣ ΧΡΙΣΤΟΥ: The Current State of Play and the Key Arguments, Currents in Biblical Research 14:2, 244-255 (2016).

[3]

I should note that the precise reasons why both readings are grammatically correct are beyond my very modest Greek skills. I did, however, consult other scholars, including my Greek professor from seminary, who confirmed that either reading could be correct.